Bible validity vs. the authenticity of Mark, One viewpoint In an ongoing philosophical discussion with a member of this forum regarding the extra-biblical revelation of THE_URANTIA_BOOK, and how it relates to Christianity, he mentioned that I should expand upon one of my messages to him and upload it to the scripture study library. It condenses a lot of information regarding the origins of the Old and New Testaments, and defines why the Bible is reliable. In the process of translation from one language to another, interpretation is a matter of neccessity. A Spanish edition of any text, in order to be translated to Spanish must first be interpreted, because word for word translations from one language to another is just meaningless. Words in one language may not exist in the other language, and grammatical and sentence structures between two languages are generally incompatible. In such cases interpretation is neccessary and acceptable. Websters' Ninth New Collegiate Dictionary defines AUTHENTIC as: 1. Authoritative. 2. Worthy of acceptance or belief as conforming to fact or reality. 3. (a) Not imaginary, false, or imitation. (b) Conforming to an original so as to reproduce essential features. Can we accept the authenticity (as defined by Webster) of the Bible? In the course of writing this article, I have excerpted text from "INTRODUCTION TO NEW TESTAMENT TEXTUAL CRITICISM", by J. Harold Greenlee, and from "REASONS", by Josh McDowell & Don Stewart. Due to the strict Levitical Laws surrounding duplication of the Old Testament, since the time the Levites were first given the responsibility for its safe keeping, it is reasonable to presume that the Old Testament we know today, is accurate. (I can provide you with those laws if you aren't already aware of them). In the 50's the Dead Sea Scrolls were found, and when translated were found to *verify* the Old Testament. This was a phenomenal find as it put to rest any questions regarding the completeness of the Old Testament. We can say then that the Old Testament is accurate and therefore authentic. The New Testament however was not afforded the priviledge of strict Levitical Laws to protect and preserve its essence for 2000 years in the future. We do have something else though. Many, many copies of early scrolls, parchments, and papyri. These manuscripts are also in several different languages. Our knowledge of the New Testament is derived from three principal sources. A. Greek Manuscripts 1. AUTOGRAPHS (originals) hypothetical source only, since none are extant. 2. PAPYRI Over 70 papyrus manuscripts are now known and identified. Circa 2 AD to 5 AD. 3. UNCIAL MANUSCRIPTS. Circa 4 AD to 10 AD. 4. MINISCULE MANUSCRIPTS. Circa 9 AD to ? 5. LECTIONARIES. Circa 6 AD to ? B. Versions 1. LATIN (a) ITALA Circa 4 AD to ? (b) VULGATE Circa 4 AD to ? 2. SYRIAC (a) Diatessarone Circa 2 AD (b) Old Syriac Circa 3 AD (c) Peshitta Circa 5 AD (d) Philoxenian Circa 5 AD (e) Harkleian Circa 8 AD (f) Palestinian Circa 5 AD 3. COPTIC (a) Sahidic Circa 4 AD (b) Bohairic Circa 7 AD (c) Mid. Egyptian Circa 4 AD 4. ARMENIAN Circa 5 AD 5. GEORGIAN Circa 4 AD 6. ETHIOPIC Circa 4-7 AD 7. GOTHIC Circa 3-4 AD 8. ARABIC Circa 7 AD 9. PERSIAN Circa 14 AD 10. SLAVONIC Circa 9 AD C. Patristic Quotations The third principal source of knowledge of the New Testament text is the great numbers of quotations from the New Testament which are found in writings of christian writers of the early centuries. These quotations are so extensive that the New Testament could virtually be reconstructed from them without the use of the manuscripts listed in A. and B. above. They are mainly in Greek, Latin, and Syriac. We are now faced with a 200-300 year dilemma between the original texts, and the known, existing copies. Not to worry, I refer you once again to J. Harold Greenlee's book. By way of comparative analysis between the three principal sources using the techniques of Textual Criticism, it is possible to establish an authentic text, that conforms to the original text so as to reproduce the essential features, and is trustworthy. While the great majority of the text of the New Testament is beyond doubt, there do exist a few passages in which there is some question as to their originality. Without being exhaustive, these passages include John 5:3,4; John 7:53 to 8:11 and 1 John 5:7. However, the most famous passage probably is the conclusion of the Gospel of Mark. After Mark 16:8 there is a disagreement in the existing manuscripts as to what follows. Some manuscripts end at verse 8 with the phrase, "for they were afraid." There are a handful of manuscripts that contain two different short endings which are not considered by any textual scholar to be in the original manuscript. However, most of the manuscripts contain the familiar 12 verses that are found in the KJV and many other translations. Is this Mark's original ending? Or did Mark end his Gospel at verse 8? Perhaps the original reading was lost. The issue is, are the last 12 verses (Mark 16:9-20)-as contained in the KJV- original to the Gospel of Mark? Reasons against accepting the last 12 verses as being authoritative can be put into 3 categories: 1. External evidence 2. Internal evidence 3. Theological evidence The argument from external evidence concerns such a long ending being absent. In the two oldest manuscripts that contain the end of the Gospel of Mark (Codex Siniaticus and Codex Vaticanus), the last 12 verses are omitted. Some of the versions (translations into other languages) also omit these verses as do some of the early church fathers. The fact that some manuscripts contain two shorter endings also speaks against the longer reading as being original with Mark. Moreover, some of the early church fathers speak out against these verses as being original. Clement of Alexandria and Origen do not seem to be aware of the existence of these verses, while Eusebius and Jerome supposedly say that these verses were absent from almost all the Greek manuscripts they were aware of. Some manuscripts that contain the long ending have notes written by scribes testifying that older manuscripts lacked these verses. Other manuscripts have marks indicating there is some doubt about the passage. Bruce Metzger, in "A TEXTUAL COMMENTARY ON THE GREEK NEW TESTAMENT" (P. 125), states the case against accepting the last 12 verses as being original with Mark, based upon the internal evidence: "The longer ending though current in a variety of witnesses, some of them ancient, must also be judged by internal evidence to be secondary. (a) The vocabulary and style of verses 9-20 are non-Markal, There are certain words used here and nowhere else in the New Testament, and there are certain names used as designations of the desciples, which occur only here in the New Testament. (b) The connection between verse 8 and verses 9-20 is so awkward that it is difficult to believe that the evangelist intended the section to be a continuation of the Gospel. The subject of verse 8 is the women, whereas Jesus is the presumed subject in verse 9. In short, all these features indicate that the section was added by someone who knew a form of Mark that ended abruptly with verse 8 and who wished to supply a more appropriate conclusion. In view of the inconsistencies between verses 1-8 and 9-20, it is unlikely that the long ending was composed ad hoc to fill up an obvious gap; it is more likely that the section was excerpted from another document, dating perhaps from the first half of the second century. There also is alleged theological evidence against these verses being authentic with Mark. This includes: 1. baptism is a requirement for salvation (Mark 16:16) 2. Jesus' appearance in a different form (Mark 16:12) 3. fanciful ideas such as drinking poison and snake handling (Mark 16:18) Since these ideas appear to be contrary to the rest of Scripture, the passage must be rejected as being the inspired Word of God, critics say. Although these arguments seem, on the surface, to be conclusive they break down upon closer examinations of the evidence. While it is true that the two oldest manuscripts which contain Mark 16 do not have the last 12 verses, there is enormous external evidence that supports it as being original. Although omitted by the two oldest Greek manuscripts, these verses are found in virtually all the remaining Greek manuscripts that contain the end of Mark. All of the Latin versions and Syriac versions contain these verses with only a few exceptions. More important is the fact that early church fathers quote from it and are aware of it (Justin Martyr, A.D. 150; Tatian, A.D. 175; Irenaeus, A.D. 180; and Hippolytus, A.D. 200). These men lived 150 years before the composition of Codex Vaticanus and Codex Siniaticus (about A.D. 325), showing that these verses were in existence at that time. For some reason, they were not included. But the reason was not that they did not exist. If this long ending is not original then why is there such wide and diverse testimony as to its authenticity? External evidence favors it as being authentic. Internal evidence against these verses being original likewise is unsatisfactory. Arguments regarding style and vocabulary are weak at best. Metzger points out that there are 17 words in the 12 verses that are found nowhere else in the Gospel of Mark. This supposedly proves that this section is not authentic (THE TEXT OF THE NEW TESTAMENT, P. 227). However, John Broadus did a study of the 12 verses which preceded the ones in question (Mark 15:44 to 16:8) and found 17 words in THAT section that are found nowhere else in the Gospel of Mark! It is a well-know fact that vocabulary and style change with subject matter. To base an argument on something as subjective as this is not valid. The argument that the connection is awkward between verse 8 and verses 9-20 does not help the case for omitting it. If these verses were added by someone later, rather than by Mark, why did they not try to smooth out the discontinuity? The internal argument here is not as sound as some make it to appear. (see John Burgon, LAST TWELVE VERSES OF MARK, Reprint, pp. 222-270.) The theological evidence also is not conclusive against these verses. Mark 16:16 does NOT teach that a person needs to be baptized to be saved. It merely links salvation with the act of baptism because the two go together. A person who truly accepts Christ as his Savior will desire to be baptized, seeing that the Lord commanded it. However, it is not baptism that saves a person but believing: "He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life" (John 3:36). Baptism is the outward objective sign of the inward change. It should be the experience of every believer, but it is not a requirement for salvation. Notice Mark says in verse 16 that he who believes not shall be damned, not he who is not baptized. Nothing here is contrary to Scripture. The idea of Jesus appearing in another form does not contradict other accounts of his resurrection. It is a simple description of His walk to the village of Emmaus with the two disciples in which He appeared in a form which was unrecognizable. This differs from His appearances to Mary Magdalene and the other women who recognized him immediately. But Luke tells us that when they reached Emmaus the eyes of the two disciples were opened and they recognized Jesus. There is no contradiction here. Mark is recording the point of view of Jesus (different form) while Luke gives the point of view of the two disciples (eyes held back). Moreover, the New Testament seems to indicate that Jesus' appearances after His resurrection were not always in the same form. Finally, the excesses that have come about as a result of some interpretations of the verses on drinking poison and snake handling do speak against their authenticity. In Acts 28:3-6 we are given an example of the apostle Paul being accidentally bitten by a deadly snake, yet he survived. The miraculous signs promised to our Lord's disciples in Mark are not new, for both Matthew and Luke record the promise and fulfillment of these signs (Matthew 10:1; Luke 10:17, 18). Moreover, Hebrews 2:3,4 indicates that signs did follow the believers. Just because there have been abuses based upon these verses does not mean that the verses are to be thrown out as uninspired. On the other hand, three strong arguments can be given for accepting these verses as original: (1) No satisfactory theory has been advanced to explain how Mark could have or would have ended his Gospel at verse 8; (2) No objection has been raised against these last 12 verses being inspired that cannot be answered; (3) The arguments given to explain the tremendous amount of objective evidence as to the varied and wide testimony in the Greek manuscripts, translations, and church fathers, are unsatisfactory. It is much easier to explain why the passage could have been omitted in some manuscripts rather than to try and explain how it received such a wide acceptance. And for a thorough answer to the correctness of the theology of the last 12 verses, see THE INTERPRETATION OF ST. MARK'S GOSPEL, by R.C.H. LENSKI. It can be said then that the entire Bible IS textually 99.5% authentic, through investigation and verification, and that we know that which is in doubt. The spiritual teachings and miracles performed by Jesus Christ, (as witnessed and testified to by the disciples, and in most cases, the Jews) are that which we can accept based on the textual validity of The Bible. Glenn W. Ulrich CIS 71566,1470